I am intrigued by the coverage of the Blair Affair in the British media. Our journalists are eager to accuse foreign politicians of corruption, but so far I have only seen the word used once, in the Financial Times [subscription required], of the “cash for peerages” story.
Of course Blair is innocent until proven guilty. But he stands accused of actions which, if those of a Russian, French or German politician would be called corrupt. So why does the British press trivialise this story with the cheery “cash for peerages” tag?
Is it that journalists are trying to echo the “cash for questions” scandal of so many years ago; subtly (and ridiculously) suggesting moral equivalence with the Tory “sleaze” with which they once had such fun?
The Last Ditch by Tom Paine 
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